Pharma Samplex

Cards (98)

  • Pharmacology - Study of the preparation, properties, uses, and actions of drugs.
  • Pharmacodynamics - Effect of the drug on the body.
  • Therapeutic effect - Types of effect of drugs which gives a favorable response.
  • Patient was given an antidote. In what cases are these drugs given? Anaphylactic effect
  • Allosteric site - Different region on the same receptor site.
  • Potency - Concentration of the drug to produce its maximal effect/response.
  • Potency - the concentration or dose of the drug required to produce 50% of that drugs maximal effect. High to low potency: B > A > C >D
  • Affinity - Extent to which the drug binds to its receptor at any given concentration.
  • Affinity – the strength of binding or interaction between the ligand and its receptor.
  • What is the normal drug-dose response curve? Graded-dose response.
  • Normal drug-dose response curve: hyperbolic or sigmoidal (A, B, C)
  • Steep-dose response curve (D) - at minimal dose, the effect is maximum & usual effect of the antidote.
  • Quantal-dose response curve - dose required to produce a specified quantal effect are lognormally distributed & gaussian curve.
  • Drugs that have synergistic effects to each other and have non-competitive inhibition. Amoxicillin and Clavulanic Acid
  • Which has the most undesirable drug response except: Sedation due to diphenhydramine
  • Pharmacokinetics - The study of absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion.
  • Drugs are excreted from the body to: Kidney, breastmilk Other routes: lungs, feces, sweat, tears, saliva, hair and skin
  • The organ responsible for metabolism in the first-pass effect is the liver.
  • What can you calculate/estimate based on the ratio of the AUC obtained by oral administration versus the AUC for intravenous administration of the same drug?
    a. Absorption
    b. Bioavailability
    c. Clearance
    d. Volume of distribution
    Answer: b
  • Intravenous Route - Route that has 100% bioavailability
  • Which of the following is not a pharmacokinetic process?
    a.Drug metabolites are removed in the urine
    b. Movement of the drug to the gut and to the circulation
    c. Drug causes dilation of coronary vessels
    d. Drug is readily deposited to tissues
    Answer: c
    Remember the “ADME” of Pharmacokinetics:
    • A describes Excretion
    • B describes Metabolism
    • D describes DIstribution
  • First order kinetics - The rate of drug metabolism and elimination is directly proportional to the concentration of free drug.
  • Zero-order kinetics - the amount of drug cleared is independent of the amount to be cleared.
  • Low volume of distribution means?
    a. Drug has low half-life
    b. The drug has not accumulated in tissues
    c. Drug has low bioavailability
    Answer: c
  • Transdermal patch
  • If a drug has a half-life of 4 hours, what percentage of the drug's initial concentration will remain in the body after 8 hours? 25%
    After four hours = 50% After eight hours = 25%
  • In drug metabolism, the hepatic cytochrome P450 system is responsible for?
    a. Phase I reactions
    b. Phase II reactions
    c. Both Phase I and II reactions
    Answer: a
  • Most variable absorption is seen in which drug?
    a.oral
    b. intramuscular
    c. intravenous
    Answer: a
  • Which one of the following is best suitable for the permeation of very large protein molecules?
    a.Diffusion
    b. Endocytosis
    c. First-pass effect
    d. Lipid diffusion
    Answer: b
    Passive diffusion – most drugs (small)
    Facilitated diffusion – for large molecules
    Endocytosis & exocytosis – for exceptionally large size drugs
  • Which of the following reactions represents Phase II of drug metabolism?
    a.Amidation
    b. Hydrolysis
    c. Oxidation
    d. Reduction
    e. Sulfation
    Answer: e
  • Which of the following is the correct electrolyte disturbance associated with thiazide and loop diuretics?
    Thiazide diuretics increases Calcium,
    Loop diuretics decreases Calcium
  • A 45-year old man was started on hypertensive medications and developed persistent dry cough. Which is most likely responsible for this side effect? Enalapril
  • Torsades de Pointes is caused by all except: Answer: d
    a. Quinidine
    b. Disopyramide
    c. Procainamide
    d. Lidocaine
  • Which of the following statements regarding adenosine is not true? Answer: d
    a. Used in treatment of SVT
    b. Administered in rapid IV transfusion
    c. Has shortwave side effects
    d. (inaudible) Effect is enhanced by caffeine
  • Therapeutic action of beta-adrenergic blockers such as propranolol is believed to be primarily the result of:
    a. Reduced production of catecholamines
    b. Decreased requirement for myocardial oxygen
    c. Decreased peripheral resistance
    Answer: b
  • Which medication's administration may result in a positive Coombs' Test in the context of hemolytic anemia? Methyldopa
  • Which of the following drugs, recommended for lowering blood cholesterol, inhibits the synthesis of cholesterol by blocking HMG-CoA reductase? Statins
  • Which class of drug primarily target the sympathetic nervous system to increase heart rate and bp?
    Sympathomimetics
  • Which neurotransmitter is predominantly involved in the parasympathetic nervous system and is often targeted by drugs to reduce heart rate and promote relaxation. Acetylcholine
  • Beta blockers are commonly used to treat conditions such as HTN and angina while blocking the action of which receptors? Beta 1 receptors