forensic final pt 2

Cards (153)

  • What are stable dynamic risk factors for sexual offender recidivism?
    1. Intimacy deficiencies and emotional loneliness
    2. Significant social influences
    3. Conditions supporting sexual offending
    4. Sense of entitlement to sex
    5. Sexual self regulation
    6. General Self Regulation
    7. Lack of cooperation with supervision 
  • What is the issue with the Duluth model?
    • Little tailoring of treatment based upon type of perpetrator.
    • Focus is on male not the couple or relationship
  • Bonta's three historical generations of assessment for purpose of offering treatment include...
    1. Assessment performed chiefly by individual clinicians' judgment.
    2. Standardized assessment instruments adopted.
    3. Assessment inlcudes both risk and needs factor.
  • Prior to the Barefoot case, what did research state about violence risk assessments?
    Research said future dangerousness couldn't be accurately predicted.
  • Monitoring in reference to violence risk assessments is ongoing or repeated assessment.
  • Treatment in reference to violence risk assessments refers to rehab, psychotherapy, medication, education or vocational training.
  • HCR-20v3 focuses on past (historical scale), present (clinical scale) and future (risk management scale).
  • What's the procedure of the HCR-20v3?
    1. Examiner rates each variable along 2 dimensions: Presence + Relevance.
    2. Presence: yes, possible / partial, no, omit.
    3. Relevance [to risk for violence & to development of risk management strategies]: high, moderate, low, omit.
    4. 5 clinical factors
    5. 5 future focused risk management factors
  • Before the 1st Juvenile Code, juvenile crimes were handled by general criminal law, assumption of immaturity did exist and could be used to decrease criminal responsibility in some cases.
  • The main issue with juvenile courts is that little science is present in juv courts, mental health work is mostly guided by assumptions about how best to deal with troubled youth, not empirical evidence.
  • Sexual masochism disorder is sexual arousal in response to being beaten, humiliated, bound or otherwise made to suffer.
  • transvestic disorder is sexual arousal associated with cross-dressing
  • canada in 1983 eliminnated the word rape from legal code due to problems with definition.
  • "age at release from index sex offense" is when opportunity to re-offend is present, crime rate decrease as people age.
  • stranger victim is positively related to sexual recidivism.
  • CPORT-Seto is used to predict any sexual contact or non-contact re-offending in adult males with conviction for child porn offense.
  • PPG is useful if defendant denies on self report measures of sexual re-offending. Can differentiate between child molesters and non-offenders, some evidence for rapist and non differentiation.
  • t/f: sexual offenders have higher testerone levels than non-offenders
    false
  • offense chain is detailed specification of offense pattern is generate to identify all possible risk factors.
  • Sexual predator is a sex offender convicted of sexually violent offense and who suffers from a mental abnormality or personality disorder that makes him or her likely to engage in predatory sexually violent offenses.
  • t/f: most sexual offenses are committed by strangers
    true
  • t/f: only males commit sex offenses.
    false
  • t/f: majority of sex crimes are reported
    false
  • what does "forcible" include in the NI-BRS?
    Forcible rape, forcible sodomy, sexual assault w/ object & forcible fondling.
  • a type 1 child molester is socially competent in dealing with the world, has higher self-esteem, and usually has a good work history in line with his competence. Sexual contact appears when both have bencome aquainted and is rarely aggressive + rarely engages in genital intercourse (like type 0)
  • grooming pertains to an in-person or online strategy of sex offenders who use various methods to ingratiate themselves to their targeted victim, usually a child or adolescent.
  • a "notification" via a victim's right legislation is a requirement that victims be told about the status of an offender at various stages of the criminal justice process. 
  • Closure phase is characterized by discussing neutral topics combined with emotional support for how well the child did in interview.
  • child sexual abuse accomodation syndrome (CSAAS) is cluster of behaviors that occur in children who have been victims of SA by a family member or an adult with whom the child has a trusting relationship.
  • family only batterers are violent offenders who don't engage in violence outside family usually, periodic, primarily when their stress peaks
  • battered woman syndrome is a cluster of behavioral and psychological characteristics believed common to women who have been abused in relationships. many researchers don't accept it as valid syndrome.
  • medical child abuse aka munchausen syndrome is a rare form of child abuse in which a parents commonly the mother consistently and chronically subects child to medical attention without any true medical condition or symptoms being present.

  • two types of childhood trauma (terr):
    1. type 1: Sudden external single events that result in stereotyped symptoms of childhood PTSD along with not only detailed memories but also misperceptions / mistimings regarding characteristics of events.
    2. Type 2: Those that involve longstanding or repeated exposure to extreme external events. Memory loss is most common. 
  • What is the difference between probation and parole?
    Probation is court ordered supervision usually as an alternative to incarceration vs parole is period of conditional supervised release following incarceration.
  • What are the areas observed for coercively controlling behaviors?
    • Finances
    • Relationships
    • Wellbeing
    • Power and threats
  • Femicide is when women are killed by intimate partners, also used to indicate scenario where female is killed because of gender typically by male.
  • Deinstitutionalization of status offenders (DSO) requirement is a mandate from the JJDPA that states receiving funds for juvenile justice programs must remove all juveniles from adult jails and remove status offenders from secure institutions.
  • Legislative waiver AKA statutory exclusion or waiver by statute are waivers in which the legislative branch has ordained that juveniles of specified ages will have their cases head in criminal courts wheb charged with specific crimes.
  • Criminal justice system often asks for violence risk assessments such as when needing to determine level of supervision required upon release to community.
  • Advantages to the SPJ approach include: increased reliabilty + validity, accuracy rates equal to or better than actuarial methods, allows consideration of dynamic factors.