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Cards (34)

  • therapeutic platlet- pheresis is performed to remove granulocytes and platelets
  • therapeutic plasmapheresis is performed to remove plasma
  • The most common cause for transfusion during the neonatal period, especially if they are born before 34 weeks, is anemia.
  • Hyperkalemia can result from transfusion of a large number of stored units of red blood cells.
  • When there is blood loss, the body attempts to correct the decrease in intravascular fluid volume by shifting fluid and protein from the extravascular spaces.
  • Irradiated blood is recommended for exchange transfusion in order to:
    Decrease the incidence of graft versus host disease
  • Postpartum Mom: Anti-D Neg, Rh Control Neg, WkD Pos, 20 rosettes/5 fieldsBaby: Anti-D 4+, Rh control Neg
    Mother displays a fetal-maternal hemorrhage, give Rh immune globulin
  • Which of the following antigens is most likely to be involved in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
    Jk(a)
  • A Group A, Rh positive baby of a group O, Rh positive mother has a weakly positive DAT and moderately elevated bilirubin at birth. The most likely cause is:
    ABO incompatibility
  • What type of testing may be performed on a prenatal OB patient with a confirmed, identified antibody, to monitor status during gestational period?
    Antibody titer
  • Which of the following antibodies is NOT associated with HDFN?
    Anti-Le(a)
  • An unexplained decrease in hemoglobin and mild jaundice in a patient transfused with red blood cells one week ago would likely indicate:
    delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
  • Fever, chills, hemoglobinuria, hypotension, and generalized bleeding are symptoms of which of the following transfusion reactions:
    hemolytic
  • The component best suited for a patient with IgA deficiency and has had several anaphylactic transfusion reactions in the past is:
    Red Blood Cells, washed
  • A single unit of platelets collected by pheresis should have a minimum of:
    3.0 x 10^11 plt
  • The most effective component to treat a patient with a fibrinogen deficiency is:
    Cryoprecipitated AHF
  • To demonstrate whether antibodies have become attached to a patient's red cells in vivo, one would perform:
    a direct antiglobulin test.
  • To eliminate pseudo-reactivity caused by rouleaux:
    Add saline to the test system
  • Polyspecific anti-human globulin reagents must contain adequate levels of which of the following?
    IgG and complement
  • The following immediate spin reactions are from Patient Jones:Anti-A 0, Anti-B 0, Anti-A,B 0, A1 cells 0, A2 cells 0, B cells 0, O cells 0, Auto 0
    Group O in an elderly patient, incubate at room temp
  • The following reactions are from Patient Smith:Anti-A 2+, Anti-B 0, Anti-A,B 2+, A1 cells 1+, A2 cells 0, B cells 4+, O cells 0, Auto 0What is the most probable explanation for these reactions?
    Group A2 with Anti-A1 antibody
  • Factor V deficient patient that is pregnant and scheduled for C-section the next day
    needs fresh frozen plasma
  • 68 year old with heart failure and anoxia secondary to iron deficiency anemia (IDA)
    needs red blood cells
  • 4 year old with subacute lymphocytic leukemia and much bruising and a 11.0 g/dL hemoglobin
    needs platelets
  • Classic hemophiliac with bleeding into joints with a 12.0g/dL hemoglobin
    needs cryoprecipitated AHF
  • Different methods of antibody screening: tube testing, GEL, and Solid Phase, have different levels of sensitivity.
  • Blood samples must be labeled with at least 2 patient identifiers, date and time of collection, and a way to identify the phlebotomist.
  • Ficin (enzyme) treatment of red cells will destroy which of the following antigens?
    fya
  • Which of the following would not be performed as part of routine pre-transfusion testing?
    Full antigen typing and DAT
  • Mixed field reactions can be associated with the following:
    recently transfused patient, subgroups of A or B, and bone marrow transplant patients
  • An agglutination reaction described as 2-3 large sized clumps with a clear background would be graded as:
    3+
  • A patient has a history of anti-K from 2003. The current specimen does not demonstrate any antibodies, and the antibody screen test is negative. Blood for transfusion should be:
    K negative and crossmatch compatible
  • Of the antibodies below, which one does NOT fit with the others in terms of optimal temperature of reactivity?
    Anti-E
  • Which of the following antibodies characteristically react ONLY at the AHG phase of testing?
    Anti-Fya, -Jka, and -K(Duffy, Kell, Rh, Kidd, Ss)