ascp practice ?s

• This refers to a means by which large quantities of DNA can be amplified from a small amount of DNA template

  pcr
• With regards to PCR, which of the following is NOT accurate?

  filtration of DNA at 40 degrees
• Which of the following PCR techniques is the best one for detecting point mutation in DNA?

  allele specific PCR
• what happens after many cycles of PCR

  Exponential amplification
• Which of the following is NOT true about the Taq DNA Polymerase?

  It is ubiquitous in nature except for the hot springs
• The PCR technique used to specifically amplify only one strand of the target DNA by using unequal primer concentration is:


  Asymmetric pcr
• Sarah wants to turn up the heat on her heat block to thaw her DNA samples at over 100 degrees for an hour. What is the likely result of her PCR?

  She will likely not get any synthesis
• When setting up her thermocycler, Sarah wants to anneal her DNA strands at a temperature much higher than 60 degrees. What is the likely result of her action?

  the dna strands will likely not anneal as desired
• The PCR technique widely used in bacterial genomic studies for screening of plasmid inserts is:

  Colonly PCR
• When setting up her thermocycler, sarah wants to base pair her DNA strands at a temperature much lower than 60 degrees. What is the likely result of her action?

  the primers will likely stick to other regions of the genome
• which is true

  1. Elongation occurs at 90 degrees
  2. Taq polymerase activity is near optimal at 72 degrees
  3. Taq polymerase activity is near optimal at 50 degrees
  4. Polymerase is not required for the elongation step of PCR
• This PCR variant uses degenerate primers to amplify unknown sequences of DNA, related to a known DNA sequence is:


  degenerate pcr
• Which of the following is true about agarose gel electrophoresis?

  1. Used to separate bad proteins from good ones

  2. Used to separate different DNA molecules based on their length

  3. Used to lyse proteins with ethidium bromide (EtBr) staining

  4. Used to identify globular proteins
• Which of the following is true about ethidium bromide

  intercalates between the stacked bases of dna double helix
• If the sequence of only one stand is known for primer synthesis, the best PCR variant that allows amplification of DNA with only one known sequence is:

  inverse pcr
• True or false: Short strands of DNA usually migrate faster through gel than long ones

  false
• Which of the following is NOT true about reverse Transcription PCR(RT-PCR)?

  1.Can be used to detect RNA

  2. Used to convert mRNA to cDNA

  3. Retroviruses use reverse transcriptase to convert ssRNA to dsDNA

  4. Coronaviruses use reverse transcriptase to convert ssDNA to ssRNA
• The most efficient PCR technique that uses primer mix to detect deletions or duplications in a large gene is:

  multiplex pcr
• Which of the following is NOT true about quantitative real-time PCR (qRT-PCR)?

  1. It uses a fluorescent dye to quantify the abundance of transcripts
  2. It uses an instrument to detect fluorescence of probed targets
  3. Quantitative in nature
  4. It shows only the plateaued number of copies of DNA made every 30 minutes
• Which of the following is NOT an advantage of PCR?

  1. Requires large amounts of template DNA
  2. Very sensitive
  3. Generates multiple copies of target DNA
  4. Usually takes only a few hours to complete

  d. Usually takes only a few hours to complete
• The PCR technique designed to minimize amplification of non-specific PCR products by using 2 primer sets is:

  nested PCR
• Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of PCR?

  1. It can be sensitive to temperature changes
  2. It requires DNA sequence information that may be difficult to obtain
  3. Only large fragments are amplified
  4. There can be a high error rate
• Which of the following is NOT an application of PCR?

  1. Genomic cloning
  2. Identification of psychological ailments
  3. Genetic testing for known diseases and those on the horizon
  4. DNA fingerprintin
• The PCR variant designed for the study of RNA expression level is

  Reverse transcriptase of RT PCR
• In which of these cases does genetic testing NOT apply?

  1. Diagnosis of genetic disorders
  2. Prenatal diagnosis
  3. Newborn screening and carrier detection
  4. Identifying the main causes of environmental pollution
• Which of the following does NOT apply to DNA fingerprinting/Short tandem Repeats (STR)

  1. A short region of the genome
  2. Highly polymorphic and can detect differences or markers in population
  3. Not detected by PCR
  4. Used in forensics and paternity testing
• The following PCR technique allows measuring the DNA amplification at each cycle of PCR contrary to end point detection in traditional PCR:

  qPCR
• True or False: single nucleotide polymorphism (SNPs) are the most common type of genetic variation among people

  true
• The process of determining differences in the genotype of an individual by comparing one’s DNA sequence to another individuals sequence or a reference. It shows the possible alleles that a person has inherited from their parents. Which of the following does the statement above refer to?

  genotyping
• The PCR procedure, where Taq polymerase is added after the rest of the PCR components are heated to the DNA melting temperature so as to avoid non-specific amplification at lower temperatures is:

  hotstart pcr
• Which of the following is NOT true about HCV genotypes

  1. The genotype determines treatment protocol
  2. HCV 1 is most common and most difficult to treat
  3. HCV1 is associated with a less severe liver disease than 2 and 3
  4. HCV 2 and 3 are three times more likely than 1 to respond to therapy w/alpha-INF or combo w/ribavirin
• Which of the following syndromes do these statements refer to? 1. results from severe reduction of FMRP protein encoded by FMR1 gene 2. caused by an unstable repeat of CGG in exon 1 3. genetic disorder leads to the expansion of repeats w/aberrant hypermethylation of CpG

  fragile X syndrome
• A recombinant DNA molecule is produced by:


  joining 2 or more DNA fragments originating from different organisms
• Which of the following does NOT apply to MRSA Resistance?

  1. Penicillin binding protein (PBP1) is replaced w/PBP2a
  2. The replacement protein is encoded by the mecA gene
  3. PBP2a found in MRSA has a low binding affinity for methicillin
  4. PBP2a found in MRSA has a high binding affinity for methicillin
• Which of the following is NOT true about the post-transplant lymphoproliferative disease (PTLD)?

  1. Epstein-Barr virus infects only the T cells
  2. Commonly associated with Epstein-Barr virus
  3. Epstein-Barr virus infects the B cells
  4. Occurs either as post-transplant reactivation of virus or from primary EB
• The gene formed by the joining of DNA segments from two different sources are called:

  chimeric gene
• Which of the following is NOT true about follicular lymphoma?

  1. It involves a reciprocal translocation between the long arms of 14 and 18
  2. It involves a dysregulation of BCL2 gene on 18q21.3
  3. It involves a non-reciprocal translocation between the long arms of 14 and 18
  4. It can be detected by RT-PCR, karyotype, and southern blot
• Which of the following is NOT true about mantle cell lymphoma?

  1. It develops when B cells become abnormal
  2. It is treated with a proteosome inhibitor
  3. The IgH region on 14 joins together with a part of the long arm of 13
  4. It can be detected by RT-PCR, karyotype, southern blot, and FISH
• Which of the following enzymes is used to cut DNA molecule in rDNA technology?

  restriction enzymes
• Which of the following is NOT true about S. aureus Resistance?


  a. It developed resistance to antibiotics that target its penicillin binding protein

  b. PBP1 is replaced with PBP2a, which is encoded by the mecA gene

  c. PBP2a has a high affinity for beta-lactam antibiotics

  d. PBP2a has low affinity for beta-lactam antibiotics