What does Locke say about universally agreed propositions?
Locke argues that even if certain propositions are universally agreed upon, it does not prove they are innate, as they can be explained through experience.
What is the significance of the causal adequacy principle in Descartes' trademark argument for God's existence?
The causal adequacy principle states that the cause of an effect must have as much reality as the effect, supporting the existence of God as the cause of the idea of an infinite being.
Leibniz responded to Locke’s ‘children and idiots’ argument by claiming that people can have knowledge even if they can’t express it. We can tell by the way children and idiots behave in the world that they must ‘unconsciously’ assent to such necessary truths as ‘something cannot be and not be at the same time’.
What analogy does Leibniz use to illustrate innate knowledge?