buyers and sellers have perfect knowledge of prices
homogenous products
why are there many buyers and sellers in perfect competition?
due to the number of market participants sellers are price takers
what are price takers?
firms that have no market power are unable to influence the price - they take the "going price" offered by the market.
what does no barriers to entry and exit mean?
firms can start-up or leave the industry with relative ease which increases the level of competition
what do buyers and sellers having perfect knowledge of prices mean?
this assumption presupposes perfect information e.g if one seller lowers their price then all buyers will know about it
what do homogenous products mean?
The products are homogenous: this means firms are unable to build brand loyalty as perfect substitutes exist and any price changes will result in losing customers
why do governments encourage more competition in their economy?
There is little market failure in perfectly competitive industries
firms in perfect competition have a ___ market power, ___ market share and a ___ industry concentration ratio?
low
what does this graph show about an individual firm in perfect competition ?
In order to maximise profit, firms in perfect competition produce up to the level of output where marginal cost = marginal revenue (MC=MR)
The firm does not have any market power so it is unable to influence the price and quantity
The firm is a price taker due to the large number of sellers
The firm's selling price is the same as the market price, P1 = MR = AR = Demand
what type of profit do firms make in the short run?
A seller may gain a competitive advantage for a short period of time, which allows them to make abnormal profit
what does this graph show about a firm in perfect competition making abnormal profit?
The marginal cost curve (MC) is the supply curve of the firm
The firms is producing at the profit maximisation level of output, where MC=MR (Q1)
At this point, AR (P1) >AC (C1)
The firm is making abnormal profit = (P1-C1) x Q1
this is in the short run
what happens when firms make abnormal profit in the short run?
new firms are attracted to the industry
They are incentivised by the opportunity to make abnormal profit
There are no barriers to entry
It is easy to join the industry
describe what happens when firms make abnormal profit in the short run?
firm initially produces at profit maximisation level of output, MC=MR (Q1)
At Q1, AR (P1) > AC (P2) so firm makes abnormal profit
Incentivised by profit, new firms join the industry so supplyincreases from S1→S2
Overall quantity in the industry increases from Q1→Q2
The industry price falls from P1→P2
describe how profits go from abnormal to normal in the long run
Incentivised by profit, new firms join the industry and supply increases from S1→S2
Overall quantity in the industry increases from Q1→Q2
The industry price falls from P1→P2
The firm hast to now sell its products at the industry price of P2
The output of the firm falls from Q1→Q2 as it now has a smallermarket share of the larger industry
At the profit maximisation level of output (MC=MR) the firm is now producing at the point where AR= AC
The firm is making normal profit
firms making a loss leave the industry
when are firms in perfect competition allowed to make losses?
short run
how do losses happen in the short run?
Periods of intense competition can cause prices to fall below the average costs
New firms may enter the industry. This results in the market share being divided up between more competitors and some individual firms may start making a loss
what does this graph show about a loss making firm in perfect competition?
The firms are producing at the profit maximisation level of output, where MC=MR (Q1)
At this level of output, the AR (P1) < AC (C1)
The firm's loss is equivalent to (P1-C1)xQ1
what is the short run shut down point ?
AR=AVC
what rule determines which firms shut down in perfect competition?
The shut down rule will determine which firms shut down
There are no barriers to exit, so it is easy to leave the industry
how does the graph show a loss making firm in the short run?
The firm is initially producing at the profit maximisation level of output, where MC=MR (Q1)
At this level of output, the AR (P1) < AC (C1) and the firm is making a loss
Some firms leave the industry, and supply decreases from S1→S2
Overall quantity in the industry falls from Q1→Q2
The industry price increases from P1→P2
how does the graph show a loss making firm in the long run?
Some firms leave the industry, and supply decreases from S1→S2
Overall quantity in the industry falls from Q1→Q2
The industry price increases from P1→P2
The firm now has to sell its products at the industry price of P2
The output of the firm increases from Q1→Q2 as it now has a largermarket share of the smaller industry
At the profit maximisation level of output (MC=MR) the firm is now producing at the point where AR= AC
The firm is making normal profit
what is allocative effiency?
average revenue = marginal cost (AR = MC)
At this point, resources are allocated in such a way that consumers & producers get the maximum possible benefit
No one can be made better off without making someone else worse off
There is no excess demand or supply
what is productive effiency?
marginal cost = average cost (MC=AC) lowest point on the AC curve
At this point average costs are minimised
There is no wastage of scarce resources & a high level of factor productivity
what does this graph show about efficiency in perfect competition?
The firm produces at the profit maximisation level of output where MC=MR (Y)
The firm is productively efficient as MC=AC at this level of output
The firm is allocatively efficient as AR (P)=MC
what type of market structure is perfect competition?
theoretical
Compared to a perfectly competitive market, free markets have no?
efficient allocation of resources.
Firms may not aim to be allocatively and productively efficient. They may focus on short-termgains instead
what is a privatisation example of where huge inefficiencies rose?
Following the privatisation of the water industry in the UK in 1989, huge inefficiencies arose
Under private ownership, the main objective of these water companies was to earn short-term profits
Dividends increased for shareholders of water companies
what did the privatisation of the water industry lead to?
significant underinvestment in infrastructure and maintenance of water supply systems
This led to productive inefficiency, as deferred maintenance led to the deterioration of infrastructure over time. This caused inefficiencies such as leaks, bursts, and service disruptions
It also led to allocative inefficiency as the best interest for consumers and society's welfare declined with fall in water quality and service
it can be strongly argued that higher effiencies would be achieved under?