The naturalistic fallacy, as defined by G.E. Moore, is that it is a mistake to try and define the concept ‘good’ in terms of some natural property, such as ‘pleasant’ or ‘desirable’.
If Moore is right, then what is the problem with Utilitarianism?
If Moore is right, then we can see straight away that there is a problem with Utilitarianism, where ‘pleasure’ is at the heart of Bentham’s theory, which says that ‘pleasure is good’, so ‘we ought to seek pleasure‘.
What did Moore argue in terms of ‘ought‘ and ‘is‘?
Moore argued that it is not possible to derive an ‘ought’ from an ‘is’ - we cannot go from: ‘pleasure is good’ to: ‘we ought to seek pleasure‘.
Another way of saying this is that WE CANNOT DERIVE MORAL VALUES FROM FACTS.
Give an example of Moore’s argument that we cannot derive moral values from facts:
She is old and lonely (FACT)
You ought to euthanise her (MORAL VALUE)
If ethical naturalism is right and ethical values are facts, then we should not be able to get two different values (‘help her’/‘euthanise her’) from the same fact (‘she is old and lonely’).