emt

Cards (100)

  • Burns to pediatric patients are generally considered more serious than burns to adults because:

    A. pediatric patients are more prone to hyperthermia.
    B. pediatric patients have a proportionately larger volume of blood.
    C. pediatric patients have more surface area relative to total body mass.
    D. most burns in children are the result of child abuse.
  • A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. Law enforcement personnel have ensured that the scene is safe. The patient is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should:

    A. assist the patient's ventilations.
    B. apply a nonrebreathing mask.
    C. perform a secondary assessment.
    D. obtain baseline vital signs.
  • A 30-year-old male sustained a stab wound to the neck when he was attacked outside a nightclub. During your assessment, you should be MOST alert for:

    A. alterations in his mental status.
    B. potential airway compromise.
    C. injury to the cervical spine.
    D. damage to internal structures.
    B. potential airway compromise.
  • Approximately 25% of fatal injuries to the aorta occur during:

    A. rollover collisions.
    B. frontal collisions.
    C. lateral collisions.
    D. rear-end collisions.
    C. lateral collisions.
  • Which of the following statements regarding gunshot wounds is correct?

    A. High-velocity bullets will cause less severe internal injuries.
    B. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.
    C. The size of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.
    D. Low-velocity bullets will cause the greatest amount of trauma.
    B. The speed of a bullet has the greatest impact on the injury produced.
  • Evaluation of the interior of a crashed motor vehicle during extrication will allow the EMT to:

    A. identify contact points and predict potential injuries.
    B. determine the vehicle's speed at the time of impact.
    C. assess the severity of the third collision of the crash.
    D. recognize if the driver hit the brakes before impact.
    A. identify contact points and predict potential injuries.
  • When assessing a patient who experienced a blast injury, it is important to remember that:

    A. solid organs usually rupture from the pressure wave.
    B. primary blast injuries are typically the most obvious.
    C. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.
    D. secondary blast injuries are usually the least obvious.
    C. primary blast injuries are the most easily overlooked.
  • While assessing a young male who was struck in the chest with a steel pipe, you note that his pulse is rapid and irregular. You should be MOST suspicious for:

    A. underlying cardiac disease.
    B. traumatic rupture of the aorta.
    C. a lacerated coronary artery.
    D. bruising of the heart muscle.
    D. bruising of the heart muscle.
  • When assessing an elderly patient who fell, it is important to remember that:

    A. bilateral hip fractures usually occur when an elderly person falls.
    B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.
    C. any fall in the elderly is considered to be high-energy trauma.
    D. elderly patients who fall usually have a secondary head injury.
    B. osteoporosis can cause a fracture as a result of a fall from a standing position.
  • Airbags are designed to:

    A. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.
    B. prevent a second collision inside the car.
    C. be used with or without a shoulder harness.
    D. prevent the driver from sustaining head trauma.
    A. decrease the severity of deceleration injuries.
  • When evaluating the mechanism of injury of a car versus pedestrian collision, you should first:

    A. determine if the patient was struck and pulled under the vehicle.
    B. determine if the patient was propelled away from the vehicle.
    C. evaluate the vehicle that struck the patient for structural damage.
    D. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian.

    D. approximate the speed of the vehicle that struck the pedestrian.
  • In contrast to a Level III trauma center, a Level I trauma center must:

    A. be involved in trauma prevention programs.
    B. have access to an emergency physician within 30 minutes.
    C. have general/trauma surgeons in-house 24 hours a day.
    D. be able to stabilize patients before transferring to a higher level facility.
    C. have general/trauma surgeons in-house 24 hours a day.
  • The phenomenon of pressure waves emanating from the bullet, causing damage remote from its path, is known as:

    A. cavitation.
    B. congruent.
    C. capitation.
    D. conversion.
    A. cavitation.
  • A 15-year-old female was struck by a small car while riding her bicycle. She was wearing a helmet and was thrown to the ground, striking her head. In addition to managing problems associated with airway, breathing, and circulation, it is MOST important for you to:

    A. stabilize her entire spine.
    B. obtain baseline vital signs.
    C. leave her bicycle helmet on.
    D. inspect the helmet for cracks.
    A. stabilize her entire spine.
  • Internal injuries caused by gunshot wounds are difficult to predict because:

    A. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.
    B. the caliber of the bullet is frequently unknown.
    C. the area of damage is usually smaller than the bullet.
    D. exit wounds caused by the bullet are usually small.
    A. the bullet may tumble or ricochet within the body.
  • If a person is standing near a building that explodes, which of the following injuries would he or she MOST likely experience as a result of the pressure wave?

    A. Fractured bones
    B. Eardrum rupture
    C. Impaled objects
    D. Severe burns
    B. Eardrum rupture
  • According to the American College of Surgeons Committee on Trauma (ACS-COT), an adult trauma patient should be transported to the highest level of trauma center if he or she:

    A. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.
    B. was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another patient in the same vehicle was killed.
    C. has a systolic blood pressure of less than 110 mm Hg or a heart rate greater than 110 beats/min.
    D. has a bleeding disorder or takes anticoagulant medications and has any blunt or penetrating injury.
    A. has a GCS score of less than or equal to 13 with a mechanism attributed to trauma.
  • A young male sustained a gunshot wound to the abdomen during an altercation. As your partner is assessing and managing his airway, you should control the obvious bleeding and then:

    A. apply a cervical collar.
    B. auscultate bowel sounds.
    C. assess for an exit wound.
    D. obtain baseline vital signs.
    C. assess for an exit wound.
  • A driver involved in a rollover motor vehicle crash will MOST likely experience serious injuries or death if he or she:

    A. is wearing only a lap belt.
    B. is ejected or partially ejected.
    C. experiences multiple impacts.
    D. remains within the vehicle.
    B. is ejected or partially ejected.
  • What types of motor vehicle collisions present the greatest potential for multiple impacts?

    A. Rotational and rollover
    B. Rear-end and rotational
    C. Lateral and rollover
    D. Frontal and rotational
    A. Rotational and rollover
  • You should consider air medical transport of a trauma patient if:

    A. ground transport will take your ambulance out of service for an extended period of time, regardless of the severity of the patient's injuries.
    B. the patient requires advanced life support care and stabilization, and the nearest ALS-ground ambulance is more than 5 to 10 minutes away.
    C. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.
    D. he or she was involved in a motor vehicle crash in which another occupant in the same vehicle was killed, even if your patient's injuries are minor.

    C. traffic conditions hamper the ability to get the patient to a trauma center by ground within the ideal time frame for the best clinical outcome.
  • When caring for an occupant inside a motor vehicle equipped with an airbag that did not deploy upon impact, you should:

    A. suspect that the patient may have experienced serious injuries.
    B. realize that the airbag malfunctioned at the time of impact.
    C. recognize that the force of impact was most likely not severe.
    D. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you.
    D. remember that it could still deploy and seriously injure you.
  • When a motor vehicle strikes a tree while traveling at 40 mph, the unrestrained occupant:

    A. will decelerate at the same rate as the motor vehicle.
    B. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force.
    C. will most likely be thrown over the steering column.
    D. is thrust under the steering column onto the floorboard.
    B. remains in motion until acted upon by an external force.
  • The cervical spine is MOST protected from whiplash-type injuries when the:

    A. rear end of the vehicle is initially struck.
    B. airbag correctly deploys upon impact.
    C. headrest is appropriately positioned.
    D. patient tenses up at the time of impact.
    C. headrest is appropriately positioned.
  • While en route to a major motor vehicle crash, an on-scene police officer advises you that a 6-year-old male who was riding in the front seat is involved. He further states that the child was only wearing a lap belt and that the airbag deployed. On the basis of this information, you should be MOST suspicious that the child has experienced:

    A. open abdominal trauma.
    B. lower extremity fractures.
    C. blunt trauma to the head.
    D. neck and facial injuries.
    D. neck and facial injuries.
  • By what mechanism is a person injured when he or she falls from a significant height?

    A. Potential energy is created as the person is falling; the potential energy is then converted into kinetic energy upon impact.
    B. Kinetic energy is converted to potential energy; the potential energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.
    C. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.
    D. As the person falls, the amount of kinetic energy is converted into work; work is then converted to kinetic energy upon impact.

    C. Potential energy is converted to kinetic energy; the kinetic energy is then converted into the work of bringing the body to a stop.
  • A 12-year-old male jumped approximately 12 feet from a tree and landed on his feet. He complains of pain to his lower back. What injury mechanism is MOST likely responsible for his back pain?

    A. Secondary fall after the initial impact
    B. Energy transmission to the spine
    C. Lateral impact to the spine
    D. Direct trauma to the spinal column
    B. Energy transmission to the spine
  • Which of the following injuries would MOST likely occur as a direct result of the third collision in a motor vehicle crash?

    A. Flail chest
    B. Aortic rupture
    C. Forehead lacerations
    D. Extremity fractures
    B. Aortic rupture
  • When the speed of a motor vehicle doubles, the amount of kinetic energy:

    A. doubles.
    B. quadruples.
    C. is not affected.
    D. triples.
    B. quadruples.
  • Two of the MOST common mechanisms of injury for blunt trauma are:

    A. motor vehicle collisions and stabbings.
    B. low-caliber gunshot wounds and falls.
    C. gunshot wounds and vehicle ejections.
    D. falls and motor vehicle collisions.
    D. falls and motor vehicle collisions.
  • Force acting over a distance is the definition of:

    A. latent energy.
    B. kinetic energy.
    C. work.
    D. potential energy.
    C. work.
  • Which of the following would MOST likely occur as the direct result of the second collision in a motor vehicle crash?

    A. Collapsed dashboard
    B. Intrathoracic hemorrhage
    C. Caved-in passenger door
    D. Deformed steering wheel
    D. Deformed steering wheel
  • The index of suspicion is MOST accurately defined as:

    A. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
    B. a predictable pattern that leads to serious injuries.
    C. the way in which traumatic injuries occur.
    D. the detection of less obvious life-threatening injuries.

    A. your awareness and concern for potentially serious underlying injuries.
  • A 39-year-old male sustained a large laceration to his leg during an accident with a chainsaw and is experiencing signs and symptoms of shock. You should first:

    A. apply direct pressure to the wound.
    B. obtain baseline vital signs.
    C. provide high-flow oxygen.
    D. cover the patient with a blanket.
    A. apply direct pressure to the wound.
  • A 48-year-old male has a suspected open-book pelvic fracture. He is conscious but restless, and his skin is pale and diaphoretic. His respirations are 22 breaths/min and his pulse rate is 120 beats/min. There is no external bleeding noted. The EMT should:

    A. apply a compression device around his pelvis.
    B. elevate his legs, keep him warm, and transport.
    C. assess his blood pressure to detect hypotension.
    D. stabilize his pelvis by placing him onto his side.
    A. apply a compression device around his pelvis.
  • Most cases of external bleeding from an extremity can be controlled by:

    A. compressing a pressure point.
    B. elevating the injured extremity.
    C. applying local direct pressure.
    D. packing the wound with gauze.
    C. applying local direct pressure.
  • Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than ______ of his or her total blood volume.

    A. 5%
    B. 10%
    C. 20%
    D. 15%
    C. 20%
  • An infant with a total blood volume of 800 mL would start showing signs of shock when as little as ______ of blood is lost.

    A. 100 mL
    B. 150 mL
    C. 50 mL
    D. 200 mL
    A. 100 mL
  • Perfusion is most accurately defined as the:

    A. effective removal of carbon dioxide and other metabolic waste products from the body's cells.
    B. effective transfer of oxygen from the venules across the systemic capillary membrane walls.
    C. ability of the systemic arteries to constrict as needed to maintain an adequate blood pressure.
    D. circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs.
    D. circulation of blood within an organ in adequate amounts to meet the body's metabolic needs.
  • Which of the following findings would be the most significant when assessing a patient with possible internal bleeding?

    A. The patient had a stroke five years prior.
    B. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xarelto).
    C. The patient has a history of hypertension.
    D. The patient has not eaten in 24 hours.
    B. The patient takes rivaroxaban (Xarelto).