Exam mistakes PAPER 2 from Examiners' report

Cards (19)

    • The role of the sympathetic nervous system in increasing the heart rate was the most frequently credited mark point.
    • However, the increase in frequency of impulses from the medulla was only described in the best answers.
  • Introducing Sterile insects (Sterile insect technique) reducing transmission of dengue.
    • The idea of reducing the success of reproduction of the mosquito was well understood by the vast majority of students.
    • Any reference to COMPETITION was far less often included, resulting in only approximately 10% of students gaining both marks.
  • Describe how the mark-release-recapture method could be used to determine the population of A. aegypti at the start of the investigation. [3 marks]
    • The most common omission was not mentioning leaving sufficient time for the mosquitoes to disperse before second sampling.
    • A significant minority also failed to refer to releasing the mosquitoes after first sampling.
    • The most common correct response referred to the greater range of diameters of muscle fibres in adult mice. Better answers often provided a numerical comparison of the ranges, to score two marks
    • Common error was referring to Modal value as mean values (Read the graph carefully)
  • Explain why students set up Tube 1 [2 marks]
    • Many answers simply referred to Tube 1 as being a control, or that it was set up to allow comparison with other tubes.
    • The idea that Tube 1 shows that light does not affect DCPIP was less often mentioned.
    • Slightly more than 40% of students obtained this mark, often by stating that different chemicals or concentrations of chemicals could be compared as weed killers.
    • Fewer students referred to using IC50 as a standard or benchmark.
    • Responses which did not gain credit often simply stated ‘for comparison’, WITHOUT QUALIFICATION, or simply repeated the information provided in the stem of the question.
    • Many students provided responses which showed understanding that the light-dependent reaction would not take place, and hence neither would the Calvin cycle. - this was then linked to glucose for growth
    • However, many of these answers failed to mention the products of the light-dependent reaction.
    • Better answers did refer to ATP and/or reduced NADP not being produced for use in the light-independent reaction.
    • Relatively few students specified that the reduction of GP to form TP would not take place.
    • Most students did not refer to biomass as representing the DRY MASS or mass of carbon in a plant.
    • Alternatives such as the chemical energy store were also rarely credited.
    • Weaker responses also included loss due to faeces as part of this equation
    • The lack of responsiveness to insulin was not always linked to CELLS or RECEPTORS, or was described as a ‘resistance’ or ‘immunity’ to insulin.
    • Although students often understood that diet and lack of exercise may be involved in causing type II diabetes
    • they did not always suggest that exercise and diet may be used in treating type II diabetes.
    • The definition of phenotype was generally well known with over 90% of students obtaining at least one mark.
    • Students scoring zero usually provided a GCSE standard answer in terms of the phenotype representing an observable feature.
    • Responses awarded a single mark usually described the genetic influence on the phenotype.
    • Better answers also included the effect of the environment, to gain both marks.
  • Describing the role of DNA polymerase in Reverse transcriptase-PCR. [1]
    Many other students omitted any reference to either DNA or nucleotides; these incomplete descriptions were not credited.
  • Any DNA in the sample is hydrolysed by enzymes before the sample is added to the reaction mixture. Explain why. [2 marks]
    • Some responses did suggest that the hydrolysis of DNA would ensure that only the RNA would then lead to amplification of DNA
    • The mark scheme required students to clearly state that DNA was removed or ‘destroyed’.
    • Almost 60% of students obtained at least one mark, often for stating that the primers are ‘COMPLEMENTARY’.
    • However, when referring to the RNA viruses, many students often omitted either the term ‘base’ or ‘sequence’, so that only one in five students gained both marks.
  • Gene pool - All the ALLELES in a population
    • When students did describe sympatric speciation,
    • relatively few mentioned that it occurs in the same area/place/population
    • Fewer still referred to disruptive selection
    • The most frequently credited mark points related to reproductive isolation, described in a variety of ways
    • Providing a definition of a species, i.e. the inability to breed to produce fertile offspring
    • Better students did appreciate that a mutation would have led to a difference in flowering times, and that different alleles would be passed on in the reproductively isolated subpopulations.
  • Suggest and explain two reasons why there is a high frequency of the E280A mutation in Yaramul (isolated place)
    • The most frequently credited response was that isolation had resulted in a small gene pool or low genetic diversity / inbreeding
    • Invariably, students referred to the gene or mutation, rather than the ALLELE being inherited through generations from a (common) ancestor.
  • The age at which the E280A mutation is expressed to cause AD can vary (lines 11–12). Suggest an explanation [2 marks]
    • Over a third of students obtained one mark, usually by naming an environmental factor such as diet, smoking or stress.
    • Answers specifically referring to epigenetics for at least one mark were infrequent.
    • These responses often gained a second mark, 10% of students, for mentioning methylation or acetylation.
    • Students who described these processes generally provided correct details
    • Explaining why there were only 74 potential AD cases when 75 mutations had been detected proved very challenging, with only 2% of students gaining this second mark.
    • A common misconception was that one individual was heterozygous for the condition.
    • It is actually one person that is homozygous dominant