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Cards (99)

  • The so-called Shepherd's crook appearance is assumed by which of the following species?
    a. Angiostrongylus cantonensis
    b. Mansonella streptocerca
    c. Dracunculus medinensis
    d. Dirofilaria immitis
    B. Mansonella streptocerca
  • Which of the following statements apply to Balantidium coli?
    1. It infects the large intestines
    2. It is non-pathogenic in man
    3. It may invade the intestinal mucosa in man
    4. It may cause diarrhea in man
    a. 1, 2, 3, and 4
    b. 1, 3, and 4
    c. 2, 3, and 4
    d. 1, 2, and 3
    B. 1, 3, and 4
  • What is the preferred method of diagnosis for Pneumocystis jiroveci?
    a. Iodine wet prep
    b. Iron hematoxylin stain
    c. Histologic stain
    d. Giemsa stain
    C. Histologic stain
  • Winterbottom sign & kerandel sign are manifestations in:
    a. Old world trypanosomiasis
    b. New world trypanosomiasis
    c. Kala-azar fever
    d. Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
    A. Old world trypanosomiasis
  • In Leishmania species, which is considered diagnostic?
    a. epimastigote
    b. promastigote
    c. metacyclic trypanosome
    d. amastigote
    D. Amastigote
  • What is the mode of reproduction of Giardia intestinalis?
    a. Longitudinal binary fission
    b. Not in the list.
    c. For cysts, longitudinal binary fission
    d. Lateral binary fission
    A. Longitudinal binary fission
  • The incorrect match between symptoms and disease is:
    a. Cardiac involvement—chronic Chagas disease
    b. Myalgias—trichuriasis
    c. Dysentery—amebiasis
    d. Malabsorption syndrome—giardiasis
    B. Myalgias-trichuriasis
  • Man serves as intermediate host to which of the following parasites?
    1. Toxoplasma gondii
    2. Echinococcus granulosus
    3. Plasmodium falciparum
    4. Diphyllobothrium latum
    a. 1 and 3
    b. 1, 2, and 3
    c. 2 and 4
    d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
    B. 1, 2, and 3
  • Which of the following is NOT a second intermediate host of the giant intestinal fluke?
    a. Water caltrop
    b. Morning glory
    c. Watercress
    d. Water chestnut
    C. Watercress
  • Which of the following is a second intermediate host of Echinostoma ilocanum?
    a. birabid
    b. kuhol
    c. All of the choices.
    d. golden apple snail
    B. Kuhol
  • Which of the following statements are true of Plasmodium falciparum?
    1. Small ring forms are the most common stage seen
    2. Infection produces enlarged red cells
    3. All asexual stages occur in peripheral blood
    4. Double chromatin dots are often seen
    a. 1, 2, and 4
    b. 1 and 4
    c. 2 and 3
    d. 1, 2, 3, and 4
    B. 1 and 4
  • The characteristic of the life cycle of H. nana that differentiates it from the other cestodes is which of the following?
    a. Lack of an intermediate host.
    b. Infective larval stage.
    c. Need for external environment
    d. Larval passage through the lungs
    A. Lack of an intermediate host
    Ratio:
    The egg may be passed outside the body via the feces or initiate autoreinfection. An egg released into the outside environment is in the infective stage. No intermediate host is required to complete the cycle.
  • All of the following are clinical manifestation of H. nana infections except:
    a. abdominal pain
    b. diarrhea
    c. anorexia
    d. steatorrhea
    D. Steatorrhea
    Ratio:
    Persons with heavy H. nana infections often develop gastrointestinal symptoms, such as abdominal pain, anorexia, diarrhea, dizziness, and headache.
  • A primary differential feature between an H. nana egg and H. diminuta egg is which of the following?
    a. A flattened side for H. diminuta egg
    b. A thick shell for H. nana egg
    c. Polar filaments in H. nana egg
    d. Radial striations in H. diminuta egg
    C. Polar filaments in H. nana egg
    Ratio:
    H. diminuta egg = Polar thickenings = Present; Polar filaments = Absent
    H. nana egg = Polar thickenings = Present; Polar filaments = Present
  • Club shaped armed rostellum
    D. caninum
  • A 2-year-old girl and her pet dog were diagnosed with D. caninum infection. This infection was acquired by which of the following?
    Ingestion of a flea
  • A unique characteristic of Dipylidium caninum is which of the following?

    Formation of egg packets
  • Standard microscopic procedure used in the detection of amebas?
    Saline wet preparations, Iodine wet preparations, and Permanent stains.
  • The only intestinal ameba that may produce characteristic symptoms and is universally considered to be a pathogen
    Entamoeba histolytica
  • "Anchovy like liver aspirate"
    a. Giardia lamblia
    b. Entamoeba histolytica
    c. Capillaria philippinensis
    d. Strongyloides stercoralis
    B. Entamoeba histolytica
  • Most common intestinal nematode of man
    Ascaris lumbricoides
  • Main utility of hooklets present in hookworm eggs:
    a. aids in tissue penetration
    b. indication of small developing larva
    c. generation of ova
    d. support for oncosphere
    A. Aids in tissue penetration
  • What is the diagnostic stage of Naegleria spp?
    Trophozoites
    Ratio:
    Naegleria fowleri is the only ameba with three known morphologic forms— ameboid trophozoite, flagellate trophozoite, and cyst. The ameboid trophozoites of N. fowleri are the only form known to exist in humans.
  • Which amoeba may grow well in PYGC medium? (Peptone, Yeast, Glucose & Cysteine)
    Acanthamoeba
  • Most common vector of Malaria:
    Anopheles Mosquito
  • Most common form of Blastocytis hominis
    a. amoeba
    b. vacuolated
    c. multiple fission
    d. granular
    B. Vacuolated
  • Diagnostic stage of Cyclospora spp?
    Oocysts
  • "Kala - azar" is caused by
    Leishmania donovani
  • Which of the following parasites can be diagnosed using Entero test?
    a. Ascaris lumbricoides
    b. Capillaria philippinensis
    c. Giardia lamblia
    d. Entamoeba coli
    C. Giardia lamblia
  • Reservoir host of Brugia malayi:
    a. Mansonia
    b. Aedes
    c. Rats
    d. Anopheles
    C. Rats
  • Infective stage of Leishmanias in sandfly
    Promastigote
  • Which is FALSE about Entamoeba coli?
    a. granular endoplasm with bacteria
    b. sluggish motility
    c. large eccentric karyosome
    d. thin regular peripheral chromatin
    D. Thin regular peripheral chromatin
  • Gold standard for diagnosis of E. histolytica
    PCR
  • True/False:
    The mature infective cyst of E. histolytica contains RBC and fine, granular cytoplasm
    False
    Ratio:
    The mature infective cyst is quadrinucleated (containing four nuclei). The cytoplasm remains fine and granular. RBCs, bacteria, yeast, and other debris are not found in the cyst stage.
  • Amoebic dysentery is caused by
    a. Entamoeba coli
    b. Entamoeba histolytica
    c. Naegleria fowleri
    d. All of the following
    B. Entamoeba histolytica
  • Stain used for in the identification of trophozoite of amoeba?
    Quensel's methylene blue
  • Cyst when mature is quadrinucleated, with eccentric large karyosomes, giving it a characteristic cross-eyed appearance
    Endolimax nana
  • All amoebae develop a cyst except
    Entamoeba gingivalis
  • Pathogenic Free-living Amoeba
    Naegleria fowleri & Acanthamoeba spp
  • Multiplication of Trophozoites of E. histolytica takes place in
    Large intestine